Affirming Christian identity

Kistemaker here renders a universal truth:

Except for Jesus, there is no one who is sinless. Even if we know God's law and precepts, we still stumble and sin from time to time. What remedy is there for the person who has fallen into sin? John provides the answer by pointing to Jesus Christ, who is our helper.

See "The Sinlessness of Jesus: Did Jesus Have to Be Without Sin?" and "Could Jesus Sin?" below.

The availability of forgiveness does not remove the saint's obligation to obey God's commands. John leaves no room for antinomianism (see below). John's desire that his readers respond to God's mercy by living lives of obedience is pervasive in 1 John (cf. 2 John 1:4-5; 3 John 1:3-4). His repeated urging of faithful obedience shows his concern for those among whom he had served (cf. 1 Sam. 12:24). It does not provide any support for the view that the docetic opponents lived lives of conspicuous immorality.

"Advocate," or "one who speaks in our defense" translates one Greek term that is also found in the discourses of John 14-16 as a name for the Holy Spirit. The term has legal connotations that are reflected in the controversy between God and the world in John 14-16. In this controversy, the Spirit encourages believers and undertakes to refute the world (all those opposed to God; John 16:8-14). The Spirit is called "another Counselor" (John 14:16) because his work of encouragement and refutation is a continuation of Jesus' own work (John 15:18-25). Christ's work defending believers who sin is part of his "session" in heaven (Rom. 8:34). This work is necessary to the application of forgiveness that believers receive when they confess.See "The Ascension and Session of Jesus: Why Did Jesus Go to Heaven?" and "The Holy Spirit: Do All Believers Have the Holy Spirit?" below. See WCF 8.8; 11.5; 18.3; WLC 55; HC 49; 60; 126; BC 23; 26.

so that you will not sin. John consistently teaches that Christians must live obediently in response to God's word (see notes on 2 Jn. 4-6; 3 Jn. 3-4). John is not affirming the positions he denied in 1:8 and 10, rather, he instructs his readers about what to do when they sin. an advocate. See BC 23, 26; HC 49. This word could also be translated as intercessor. Jesus is the ultimate advocate because of his position, righteousness, and completed work (see note on Rom. 8:34). Jesus' intercession for believers in heaven is part of his activity after his ascension, called his "session" (see note on Rom. 8:34). In his transformed humanity, Jesus represents believers before the Father as their great high priest (see notes on Hebrews 2:14-18; 4:14-16). Part of Jesus' mediating, priestly work is to guide and assists his followers in their development as his disciples.

Jesus received God's righteous judgment (his wrath against sin) in his own person, fully absorbing that judgment by his death for his people (1 Pet. 2:24). In his session (sitting at right hand of God), he continually pleads the cases of sinful believers based on the merit of his effectual sacrifice. See "The Ascension and Session of Jesus: Why Did Jesus Go to Heaven?" below.

John uses the phrase "for the sins of the whole world." This does not suggest that Jesus' death atones for the sin of every person without exception. While all men are the intended beneficiaries of the Cross in some sense (common grace), Paul makes it very clear that all men are not intended as the beneficiaries of the death of Christ in the same way. 1 Timothy 4:10 says "Jesus Christ is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe." Unbelievers may benefit from common grace (Matt. 5:45) which in part is (1) the preaching of the Gospel, (2) God's patience in not immediately passing final judgment, and (3) relationships with those that are true covenant members. These are results of common grace, but atonement is especially for the elect, the recipients of special grace.

Charles Hodge said that there is a sense in which it is scriptural to say that Christ died for all men. He also points out:

To die for one is to die for his benefit. As Christ's death has benefited the whole world, prolonged the probation of men, secured for them innumerable blessings, provided a righteousness sufficient and suitable for all, it may be said that he died for all" . . . "this is very different from saying that he died equally for all men, or that his death had no other reference to those who are saved than it had to those who are lost" (Charles Hodge, 1 & 2 Corinthians [Edinburgh: Banner of Truth, 1994], p. 149).

Christ is the Savior, especially of those who believe. He specifically atoned for the sins of the elect, not the nonelect, for only the many and not all mankind - without exception.

There is grammatical parallel between 1 John 2:2 and John 11:51-52, which reads:

He did not say this of his own accord, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, and not for the nation only, but also to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.

It is clear that John is speaking of the same thing in each set of verses. "The whole world" refers to only the children of God scattered throughout the whole world (John 17:6, 9, 19; Rev. 5:9; 7:9), the "many" of Hebrews 9:28, but not each person in the human race (John 5:29).

Logic also must dictate here. If God desires all men to be saved without exception, then why are any lost? It is impossible to give the words ransom, substitute, reconcile, and propitiate their biblical meaning and still hold to universal atonement without also accepting universal salvation. If these terms hold to their rightful meanings, then Christ died only for the elect.

Christ died specifically for the sins of the elect and actually accomplished their salvation and did not just provide a mere possibility of it (Isa. 53:11; Matt. 1:21; 20:28; 26:28; Luke 1:68; John 6:37-39; Acts 20:28; Rom. 5:8-11; Gal. 3:13 Heb 7:24-26; 9:11-12; cf. Luke 19:10, 1 Tim 1:15; Tit. 2:13-24, etc.). Since Christ literally accomplished the redemption of those who would believe, this means all their sins have been atoned for. And since all their sins are atoned for, including the sin of unbelief, then the definition of "all" or "world" in such contexts cannot include every man in the world without exception because every man in the world then, without exception, would be saved (universalism).

Found in his definitive work entitled "The Death of Death in the Death of Christ," John Owen proves the point:

Which of these statements is true?
1. Christ died for some of the sins of all men.
2. Christ died for all the sins of some men.
3. Christ died for all the sins of all men.

No one says that the #1 is correct, for then all would be lost because of the sins that Christ did not die for. One sin - only one sin - means eternal death (Rom. 3:23; 1 Kings 8:46; Eccl. 7:20; Rom. 3:9). The only way to be saved from sin is for Christ to cover all a sinners' sins with his blood.

Some (Arminians) would say that #3 is correct: "Christ died for all the sins of all men." But then, why are not all saved? (i.e. Judas, the son of perdition, etc.). They answer, "Because some do not believe." However, is not unbelief one of the sins for which they claim Christ died? If they say yes, then why is their unbelief not covered by the blood of Jesus and all unbelievers saved? And if they answer no and that unbelief is not a sin that Christ has died for, then they must affirm against the Gospel (Heb. 11:6; cf. Acts 16:31; Rom. 4:24; 10:9-10; Matt. 10:32; Luke 12:8; 1 Pet. 1:21; 1 John 4:15) that men can be saved without having all their sins atoned for by Jesus. There is only one way (John 14:6).

The reality is #2 is true: "Christ died for all the sins of some men." That is, he died specifically for the unbelief of the elect and actually accomplished their salvation, not just provided a possibility of it (Heb. 7:24-26; 9:11-12; cf. Luke 19:10; 1 Tim. 1:15). For them, and them alone, God's punitive wrath is appeased, and his grace is free (Eph. 2:8-10) to draw them irresistibly to himself (John 6:44, 65). As Charles Spurgeon once said:

We say Christ so died that he infallibly secured the salvation of a multitude that no man can number, who through Christ's death not only may be saved, but are saved, must be saved, and cannot by any possibility run the hazard of being anything but saved.

The Greek word (hilasmos), translated here as atoning sacrifice is only used twice in the NT, both times in this letter (cf. 4:10). This word has attracted a lot of debate, but it references the fundamental practice under the old covenant of satisfying God's justice (propitiation) and cleansing human sin (expiation) through animal sacrifices (see notes on Lev. 16:15-16, 30). Jesus took God's wrath for humanity's sins on himself, satisfying the righteous judgment of God in order to forgive them (see note on 1 Pet. 2:24). Jesus advocates for believers (2:1) on the basis of his sacrifice (see notes on Heb. 8-10). the whole world. See HC 1, 37, 56. See notes on Jn. 10:14-16, 25-29; 11:51-52. Jesus did not die for Jews alone, but for the whole world, meaning all people groups. So, this phrase describes all who trust Christ, spread among all the families or tribes of the earth (see notes on Jn. 11:52; 17:6, 9, 19; Rev. 5:9; 7:9). John has already made it clear that those who will be saved must confess their sins and approach God through Christ (1:9; 2:22-23; 4:15; 5:1-5, 12, 19). Therefore, John is not saying everyone will be saved. He also rules this out in 5:11-13, where he writes that those who have the Son have eternal life, but those who do not have the Son do not.